Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

When a dog smells another dog’s poo or wee, do they then remember that scent for when they smell it again, or even further know which dog they are smelling if they know the dog?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

There's no rule.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Has anyone ever participated in a gang bang and what was it like?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Humans have evolved and become hairless and odor free. How do other races learn about evolution since evolution does not apply to them?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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